The are to be ‘Heard’, Sruthi, not learnt from written Books.
However, the written form of the Vedas are in the form of Manuscripts.
“Due to the ephemeral nature of the manuscript material (birch bark or palm leaves), manuscripts rarely surpass an age of a few hundred years.
The Benares Sanskrit University has a Rigveda manuscript of the mid-14th century and there are a number of older Veda manuscripts in Nepal belonging to the Vajasaneyi tradition that are dated from the 11th century onwards.”
The core text of the Yajurveda falls within the classical Mantra period of Vedic Sanskrit at the end of the 2nd millennium BCE – younger than the Rigveda, and roughly contemporary with the Atharvaveda, the Rigvedic Khilani, and the Sāmaveda.
There is a dispute about the exact date of the Manuscripts.
What is to be borne in mind is that the spoken word being older than the written word, and considering the richness of the Language used the Vedas must date quite a few thousand years than the date of the Manuscripts.
But be it as it may.
What I am interested is not about the date of the Vedas but the dates of Vedas when seen in conjunction with the Ithihasas, Ramayana and Puranas.
They themselves admit that the follow the Vedas and as such mus be post-Veda.
Fine, no issues,
But when the Vedas contain references to the Puranas, Ihihsas or their Characters found therein?
Of these,are characters from The Ramayana(1,2 ) ,: 3, 4 , 5 from Mahabharata and Bhagavatham while 6 ,7, and 8 from Puranas ..
Yagnavalkya is reported to have vomited the Vedas , Taittriyas.
If one looks at these the question that comes to mind is,
If the Purana, Ithihasas are later than the Vedas, how come they are mentioned in the Vedas?
It is also stated that Viswamitra gave the world the Gayatri Mantra, to whom it was revealed.
The Rig Vedic version has one syllable short and Taittriya Aranyaka has the full detailed version.
Does this mean that before it was revealed to Viswamitra no body chanted it?
Yet there are references of the Rishis chanting the Gayatri before the advent of Viswamitra.
How and why?
Therefore my options are.
1. That the Vedas are not eternal I do not subscribe to this view.
2.The References to Puranas are Interpolations.- Possible.
3.That as Sound precedes being grasped, Sounds that exists eternally, are picked up at different times by the different Seers and are recorded.
Understanding Infinity and Zero are equally beyond me.
In this sense eternity seems to have a break in that while Sound is Eternal, grasping it not.